I am in the subject of measuring mV signals with maximum accuracy.
The formulas for calculating white noise is described in several data sheets.
But for 1/f noise I didn't see such a formula.
What's confusing to me, that at DC you get infinite nV/rtHz noise level.
Doesn't this translate to infinite RMS and peak-peak level?
In Opamp data sheet there is a graph - noise in nV/rtHz over frequency.
How can I calculate the rms (and peak-peak) noise if I would brick-wall (low pass) filter the output at 0.1Hz / 1Hz / 10Hz ?
How can I compare the "outcome" of zero-drift OPA versa "normal" OPA (noise) for the above sample rate?
A resistor doesn't have 1/f noise? So a 350 Ohm resistor has 2,4nV/rtHz.
This would mean that at DC to 0.1Hz it would have 0,8nV rms?