Why in the formula for normalized Phase Noise (FOM) the contribution of PDF is calculated with 10*log10(PDF) and not 20*Log10(PDF)? In other wordl what is the explanation and the origin of this term?
Why in the formula for normalized Phase Noise (FOM) the contribution of PDF is calculated with 10*log10(PDF) and not 20*Log10(PDF)? In other wordl what is the explanation and the origin of this term?
Hello,
Please start reading here: https://ez.analog.com/rf/w/documents/10100/faq-pll-normalized-phase-noise-floor-and-1-f-phase-noise
Thank you,
Antoniu
Hello,
Please start reading here: https://ez.analog.com/rf/w/documents/10100/faq-pll-normalized-phase-noise-floor-and-1-f-phase-noise
Thank you,
Antoniu