Hello,
I understand that there is a propagation associated with input voltage overdrive. Is there any way I can relate this number to sin wave of different frequency and amplitude? Say 1kHz, 1V amplitude sin wave referenced at 0V.
I tried used a step function formula:
Vo == Ao*(1-exp(-t/Tc))*Vi
Vo = ~2 ((VOH-VOL/)2)
Vi = overdrive amplitude
Ao = DC gain
Tc = 1/wc, first pole frequency
This gave me sensible result if I had Vi a constant voltage but if I had Vi*sin(2*pi*f*t), it gives me unreasonably long result. I am guessing the hysteresis feedback comes into play?
Thanks.
